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Post by manzana on Aug 9, 2011 18:20:12 GMT -5
On page 28 near the end of the section the probabilities for V4,V3,v2, and V1 are listed as .03, .12, .25, and .60 for sending a "1". The natural log for these would be -3.506, -2.120, -1.386, and -.51083. The text says to normalize these so 1 is 0. This yields v4= 0, v3= -1, v2= -4 and v1 = -10 "after some manipulation". Sorry, but how do we do this manipulation? Many thanks. This is great stuff!
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Post by charan langton on Aug 17, 2011 15:37:49 GMT -5
Hi,
I will go back and fix this some day.
Thanks for pointing it out. I believe those numbers are not correct.
Charan
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